Show that sequence is a Cauchy sequence
$begingroup$
Prove that given sequence $$langle f_nrangle =1-frac{1}{2}+frac{1}{3}-frac{1}{4}+.....+frac{(-1)^{n-1}}{n}$$
is a Cauchy sequence
My attempt :
$|f_{n}-f_{m}|=Biggl|dfrac{(-1)^{m}}{m+1}+dfrac{(-1)^{m+1}}{m+2}cdotsdots+dfrac{(-1)^{n-1}}{n}Biggr|$
using $ m+1>m implies dfrac{1}{m+1}<dfrac{1}{m} $
$|f_{n}-f_{m}|le dfrac{1}{m}+dfrac{1}{m}+dfrac{1}{m}cdotscdotsdfrac{1}{m}$
$|f_{n}-f_{m}|ledfrac{n-m}{m}$
I don't know if I am proceeding correctly or if I am, how to proceed further, any hint would be really helpful .
sequences-and-series cauchy-sequences
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Prove that given sequence $$langle f_nrangle =1-frac{1}{2}+frac{1}{3}-frac{1}{4}+.....+frac{(-1)^{n-1}}{n}$$
is a Cauchy sequence
My attempt :
$|f_{n}-f_{m}|=Biggl|dfrac{(-1)^{m}}{m+1}+dfrac{(-1)^{m+1}}{m+2}cdotsdots+dfrac{(-1)^{n-1}}{n}Biggr|$
using $ m+1>m implies dfrac{1}{m+1}<dfrac{1}{m} $
$|f_{n}-f_{m}|le dfrac{1}{m}+dfrac{1}{m}+dfrac{1}{m}cdotscdotsdfrac{1}{m}$
$|f_{n}-f_{m}|ledfrac{n-m}{m}$
I don't know if I am proceeding correctly or if I am, how to proceed further, any hint would be really helpful .
sequences-and-series cauchy-sequences
$endgroup$
1
$begingroup$
Well, the limit of the sequence because of Leibniz' criterion.
$endgroup$
– egreg
4 hours ago
1
$begingroup$
Hint: a convergent sequence is Cauchy.
$endgroup$
– Bernard
4 hours ago
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Prove that given sequence $$langle f_nrangle =1-frac{1}{2}+frac{1}{3}-frac{1}{4}+.....+frac{(-1)^{n-1}}{n}$$
is a Cauchy sequence
My attempt :
$|f_{n}-f_{m}|=Biggl|dfrac{(-1)^{m}}{m+1}+dfrac{(-1)^{m+1}}{m+2}cdotsdots+dfrac{(-1)^{n-1}}{n}Biggr|$
using $ m+1>m implies dfrac{1}{m+1}<dfrac{1}{m} $
$|f_{n}-f_{m}|le dfrac{1}{m}+dfrac{1}{m}+dfrac{1}{m}cdotscdotsdfrac{1}{m}$
$|f_{n}-f_{m}|ledfrac{n-m}{m}$
I don't know if I am proceeding correctly or if I am, how to proceed further, any hint would be really helpful .
sequences-and-series cauchy-sequences
$endgroup$
Prove that given sequence $$langle f_nrangle =1-frac{1}{2}+frac{1}{3}-frac{1}{4}+.....+frac{(-1)^{n-1}}{n}$$
is a Cauchy sequence
My attempt :
$|f_{n}-f_{m}|=Biggl|dfrac{(-1)^{m}}{m+1}+dfrac{(-1)^{m+1}}{m+2}cdotsdots+dfrac{(-1)^{n-1}}{n}Biggr|$
using $ m+1>m implies dfrac{1}{m+1}<dfrac{1}{m} $
$|f_{n}-f_{m}|le dfrac{1}{m}+dfrac{1}{m}+dfrac{1}{m}cdotscdotsdfrac{1}{m}$
$|f_{n}-f_{m}|ledfrac{n-m}{m}$
I don't know if I am proceeding correctly or if I am, how to proceed further, any hint would be really helpful .
sequences-and-series cauchy-sequences
sequences-and-series cauchy-sequences
edited 4 hours ago
Bernard
121k740116
121k740116
asked 4 hours ago
kira0705kira0705
1167
1167
1
$begingroup$
Well, the limit of the sequence because of Leibniz' criterion.
$endgroup$
– egreg
4 hours ago
1
$begingroup$
Hint: a convergent sequence is Cauchy.
$endgroup$
– Bernard
4 hours ago
add a comment |
1
$begingroup$
Well, the limit of the sequence because of Leibniz' criterion.
$endgroup$
– egreg
4 hours ago
1
$begingroup$
Hint: a convergent sequence is Cauchy.
$endgroup$
– Bernard
4 hours ago
1
1
$begingroup$
Well, the limit of the sequence because of Leibniz' criterion.
$endgroup$
– egreg
4 hours ago
$begingroup$
Well, the limit of the sequence because of Leibniz' criterion.
$endgroup$
– egreg
4 hours ago
1
1
$begingroup$
Hint: a convergent sequence is Cauchy.
$endgroup$
– Bernard
4 hours ago
$begingroup$
Hint: a convergent sequence is Cauchy.
$endgroup$
– Bernard
4 hours ago
add a comment |
3 Answers
3
active
oldest
votes
$begingroup$
If you ignore the signs of the terms,
the result diverges.
So you can't do that.
$f_n
=sum_{k=1}^n dfrac{(-1)^k}{k}
$
so,
if $n > m$,
$f_n-f_m
=sum_{k=m+1}^n dfrac{(-1)^k}{k}
=sum_{k=1}^{n-m} dfrac{(-1)^{k+m}}{k+m}
=(-1)^msum_{k=1}^{n-m} dfrac{(-1)^{k}}{k+m}
$.
If
$n-m$ is even,
so $n-m = 2j$,
then
$begin{array}\
f_n-f_m
&=(-1)^msum_{k=1}^{2j} dfrac{(-1)^{k}}{k+m}\
&=(-1)^msum_{k=1}^{j} left(dfrac{(-1)^{2k-1}}{2k-1+m}+dfrac{(-1)^{2k}}{2k+m}right)\
&=(-1)^msum_{k=1}^{j} (-1)^{2k-1}left(dfrac{-1}{2k-1+m}+dfrac{1}{2k+m}right)\
&=(-1)^msum_{k=1}^{j} (-1)^{2k-1}left(dfrac{(2k-1+m)-(2k+m)}{(2k-1+m)(2k+m)}right)\
&=(-1)^{m+1}sum_{k=1}^{j} left(dfrac{-1}{(2k-1+m)(2k+m)}right)\
&=(-1)^{m}sum_{k=1}^{j} left(dfrac{1}{(2k-1+m)(2k+m)}right)\
text{so}\
|f_n-f_m|
&=sum_{k=1}^{j} left(dfrac{1}{(2k-1+m)(2k+m)}right)\
&=sum_{k=1}^{j}dfrac14 left(dfrac{1}{(k-frac12+frac{m}{2})(k+frac{m}{2})}right)\
< dfrac14sum_{k=1}^{j} left(dfrac{1}{(k-1+frac{m}{2})(k+frac{m}{2})}right)
quadtext{this is the sneaky part}\
< dfrac14sum_{k=1}^{j} left(dfrac{1}{k-1+frac{m}{2}}-dfrac{1}{k+frac{m}{2}}right)\
&= dfrac14 left(dfrac{1}{frac{m}{2}}-dfrac{1}{j+frac{m}{2}}right)\
&= dfrac12 left(dfrac{1}{m}-dfrac{1}{2j+m}right)\
&= dfrac12 left(dfrac{1}{m}-dfrac{1}{n}right)\
&< dfrac{1}{2m}\
&to 0 text{ as } m to infty\
end{array}
$
If $n-m$ is odd,
the sum changes
by at most $frac1{n}$
so it still goes to zero.
$endgroup$
1
$begingroup$
Thank you for such an elaborate proof , not ignoring the signs was an important step indeed.
$endgroup$
– kira0705
3 hours ago
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Hint :
$$frac{1}{2n-1}-frac{1}{2n}=frac{1}{(2n-1)2n}leq frac{1}{(n-1)n}= frac{1}{n-1}-frac{1}{n} $$
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Fix $epsilon > 0$, then for $n > frac{2}{sqrt{epsilon}}$ (So since both sides of the inequality are positive, $n^2 > frac{4}{epsilon} implies frac{epsilon}{2} > frac{2}{n^2}$), observe that $$|f_n - f_{n+1}| = |frac{1}{n} + frac{1}{n+1}| = |frac{n+2}{n(n+1)}| = frac{n+2}{n(n+1)} < frac{n+2}{n^2} =frac{1}{n} +frac{2}{n^2} < frac{1}{frac{2}{sqrt{epsilon}}} + frac{epsilon}{2} = frac{sqrt{epsilon}}{2} + frac{epsilon}{2} < frac{epsilon}{2} + frac{epsilon}{2} = epsilon $$
$endgroup$
add a comment |
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3 Answers
3
active
oldest
votes
3 Answers
3
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
$begingroup$
If you ignore the signs of the terms,
the result diverges.
So you can't do that.
$f_n
=sum_{k=1}^n dfrac{(-1)^k}{k}
$
so,
if $n > m$,
$f_n-f_m
=sum_{k=m+1}^n dfrac{(-1)^k}{k}
=sum_{k=1}^{n-m} dfrac{(-1)^{k+m}}{k+m}
=(-1)^msum_{k=1}^{n-m} dfrac{(-1)^{k}}{k+m}
$.
If
$n-m$ is even,
so $n-m = 2j$,
then
$begin{array}\
f_n-f_m
&=(-1)^msum_{k=1}^{2j} dfrac{(-1)^{k}}{k+m}\
&=(-1)^msum_{k=1}^{j} left(dfrac{(-1)^{2k-1}}{2k-1+m}+dfrac{(-1)^{2k}}{2k+m}right)\
&=(-1)^msum_{k=1}^{j} (-1)^{2k-1}left(dfrac{-1}{2k-1+m}+dfrac{1}{2k+m}right)\
&=(-1)^msum_{k=1}^{j} (-1)^{2k-1}left(dfrac{(2k-1+m)-(2k+m)}{(2k-1+m)(2k+m)}right)\
&=(-1)^{m+1}sum_{k=1}^{j} left(dfrac{-1}{(2k-1+m)(2k+m)}right)\
&=(-1)^{m}sum_{k=1}^{j} left(dfrac{1}{(2k-1+m)(2k+m)}right)\
text{so}\
|f_n-f_m|
&=sum_{k=1}^{j} left(dfrac{1}{(2k-1+m)(2k+m)}right)\
&=sum_{k=1}^{j}dfrac14 left(dfrac{1}{(k-frac12+frac{m}{2})(k+frac{m}{2})}right)\
< dfrac14sum_{k=1}^{j} left(dfrac{1}{(k-1+frac{m}{2})(k+frac{m}{2})}right)
quadtext{this is the sneaky part}\
< dfrac14sum_{k=1}^{j} left(dfrac{1}{k-1+frac{m}{2}}-dfrac{1}{k+frac{m}{2}}right)\
&= dfrac14 left(dfrac{1}{frac{m}{2}}-dfrac{1}{j+frac{m}{2}}right)\
&= dfrac12 left(dfrac{1}{m}-dfrac{1}{2j+m}right)\
&= dfrac12 left(dfrac{1}{m}-dfrac{1}{n}right)\
&< dfrac{1}{2m}\
&to 0 text{ as } m to infty\
end{array}
$
If $n-m$ is odd,
the sum changes
by at most $frac1{n}$
so it still goes to zero.
$endgroup$
1
$begingroup$
Thank you for such an elaborate proof , not ignoring the signs was an important step indeed.
$endgroup$
– kira0705
3 hours ago
add a comment |
$begingroup$
If you ignore the signs of the terms,
the result diverges.
So you can't do that.
$f_n
=sum_{k=1}^n dfrac{(-1)^k}{k}
$
so,
if $n > m$,
$f_n-f_m
=sum_{k=m+1}^n dfrac{(-1)^k}{k}
=sum_{k=1}^{n-m} dfrac{(-1)^{k+m}}{k+m}
=(-1)^msum_{k=1}^{n-m} dfrac{(-1)^{k}}{k+m}
$.
If
$n-m$ is even,
so $n-m = 2j$,
then
$begin{array}\
f_n-f_m
&=(-1)^msum_{k=1}^{2j} dfrac{(-1)^{k}}{k+m}\
&=(-1)^msum_{k=1}^{j} left(dfrac{(-1)^{2k-1}}{2k-1+m}+dfrac{(-1)^{2k}}{2k+m}right)\
&=(-1)^msum_{k=1}^{j} (-1)^{2k-1}left(dfrac{-1}{2k-1+m}+dfrac{1}{2k+m}right)\
&=(-1)^msum_{k=1}^{j} (-1)^{2k-1}left(dfrac{(2k-1+m)-(2k+m)}{(2k-1+m)(2k+m)}right)\
&=(-1)^{m+1}sum_{k=1}^{j} left(dfrac{-1}{(2k-1+m)(2k+m)}right)\
&=(-1)^{m}sum_{k=1}^{j} left(dfrac{1}{(2k-1+m)(2k+m)}right)\
text{so}\
|f_n-f_m|
&=sum_{k=1}^{j} left(dfrac{1}{(2k-1+m)(2k+m)}right)\
&=sum_{k=1}^{j}dfrac14 left(dfrac{1}{(k-frac12+frac{m}{2})(k+frac{m}{2})}right)\
< dfrac14sum_{k=1}^{j} left(dfrac{1}{(k-1+frac{m}{2})(k+frac{m}{2})}right)
quadtext{this is the sneaky part}\
< dfrac14sum_{k=1}^{j} left(dfrac{1}{k-1+frac{m}{2}}-dfrac{1}{k+frac{m}{2}}right)\
&= dfrac14 left(dfrac{1}{frac{m}{2}}-dfrac{1}{j+frac{m}{2}}right)\
&= dfrac12 left(dfrac{1}{m}-dfrac{1}{2j+m}right)\
&= dfrac12 left(dfrac{1}{m}-dfrac{1}{n}right)\
&< dfrac{1}{2m}\
&to 0 text{ as } m to infty\
end{array}
$
If $n-m$ is odd,
the sum changes
by at most $frac1{n}$
so it still goes to zero.
$endgroup$
1
$begingroup$
Thank you for such an elaborate proof , not ignoring the signs was an important step indeed.
$endgroup$
– kira0705
3 hours ago
add a comment |
$begingroup$
If you ignore the signs of the terms,
the result diverges.
So you can't do that.
$f_n
=sum_{k=1}^n dfrac{(-1)^k}{k}
$
so,
if $n > m$,
$f_n-f_m
=sum_{k=m+1}^n dfrac{(-1)^k}{k}
=sum_{k=1}^{n-m} dfrac{(-1)^{k+m}}{k+m}
=(-1)^msum_{k=1}^{n-m} dfrac{(-1)^{k}}{k+m}
$.
If
$n-m$ is even,
so $n-m = 2j$,
then
$begin{array}\
f_n-f_m
&=(-1)^msum_{k=1}^{2j} dfrac{(-1)^{k}}{k+m}\
&=(-1)^msum_{k=1}^{j} left(dfrac{(-1)^{2k-1}}{2k-1+m}+dfrac{(-1)^{2k}}{2k+m}right)\
&=(-1)^msum_{k=1}^{j} (-1)^{2k-1}left(dfrac{-1}{2k-1+m}+dfrac{1}{2k+m}right)\
&=(-1)^msum_{k=1}^{j} (-1)^{2k-1}left(dfrac{(2k-1+m)-(2k+m)}{(2k-1+m)(2k+m)}right)\
&=(-1)^{m+1}sum_{k=1}^{j} left(dfrac{-1}{(2k-1+m)(2k+m)}right)\
&=(-1)^{m}sum_{k=1}^{j} left(dfrac{1}{(2k-1+m)(2k+m)}right)\
text{so}\
|f_n-f_m|
&=sum_{k=1}^{j} left(dfrac{1}{(2k-1+m)(2k+m)}right)\
&=sum_{k=1}^{j}dfrac14 left(dfrac{1}{(k-frac12+frac{m}{2})(k+frac{m}{2})}right)\
< dfrac14sum_{k=1}^{j} left(dfrac{1}{(k-1+frac{m}{2})(k+frac{m}{2})}right)
quadtext{this is the sneaky part}\
< dfrac14sum_{k=1}^{j} left(dfrac{1}{k-1+frac{m}{2}}-dfrac{1}{k+frac{m}{2}}right)\
&= dfrac14 left(dfrac{1}{frac{m}{2}}-dfrac{1}{j+frac{m}{2}}right)\
&= dfrac12 left(dfrac{1}{m}-dfrac{1}{2j+m}right)\
&= dfrac12 left(dfrac{1}{m}-dfrac{1}{n}right)\
&< dfrac{1}{2m}\
&to 0 text{ as } m to infty\
end{array}
$
If $n-m$ is odd,
the sum changes
by at most $frac1{n}$
so it still goes to zero.
$endgroup$
If you ignore the signs of the terms,
the result diverges.
So you can't do that.
$f_n
=sum_{k=1}^n dfrac{(-1)^k}{k}
$
so,
if $n > m$,
$f_n-f_m
=sum_{k=m+1}^n dfrac{(-1)^k}{k}
=sum_{k=1}^{n-m} dfrac{(-1)^{k+m}}{k+m}
=(-1)^msum_{k=1}^{n-m} dfrac{(-1)^{k}}{k+m}
$.
If
$n-m$ is even,
so $n-m = 2j$,
then
$begin{array}\
f_n-f_m
&=(-1)^msum_{k=1}^{2j} dfrac{(-1)^{k}}{k+m}\
&=(-1)^msum_{k=1}^{j} left(dfrac{(-1)^{2k-1}}{2k-1+m}+dfrac{(-1)^{2k}}{2k+m}right)\
&=(-1)^msum_{k=1}^{j} (-1)^{2k-1}left(dfrac{-1}{2k-1+m}+dfrac{1}{2k+m}right)\
&=(-1)^msum_{k=1}^{j} (-1)^{2k-1}left(dfrac{(2k-1+m)-(2k+m)}{(2k-1+m)(2k+m)}right)\
&=(-1)^{m+1}sum_{k=1}^{j} left(dfrac{-1}{(2k-1+m)(2k+m)}right)\
&=(-1)^{m}sum_{k=1}^{j} left(dfrac{1}{(2k-1+m)(2k+m)}right)\
text{so}\
|f_n-f_m|
&=sum_{k=1}^{j} left(dfrac{1}{(2k-1+m)(2k+m)}right)\
&=sum_{k=1}^{j}dfrac14 left(dfrac{1}{(k-frac12+frac{m}{2})(k+frac{m}{2})}right)\
< dfrac14sum_{k=1}^{j} left(dfrac{1}{(k-1+frac{m}{2})(k+frac{m}{2})}right)
quadtext{this is the sneaky part}\
< dfrac14sum_{k=1}^{j} left(dfrac{1}{k-1+frac{m}{2}}-dfrac{1}{k+frac{m}{2}}right)\
&= dfrac14 left(dfrac{1}{frac{m}{2}}-dfrac{1}{j+frac{m}{2}}right)\
&= dfrac12 left(dfrac{1}{m}-dfrac{1}{2j+m}right)\
&= dfrac12 left(dfrac{1}{m}-dfrac{1}{n}right)\
&< dfrac{1}{2m}\
&to 0 text{ as } m to infty\
end{array}
$
If $n-m$ is odd,
the sum changes
by at most $frac1{n}$
so it still goes to zero.
answered 3 hours ago
marty cohenmarty cohen
73.8k549128
73.8k549128
1
$begingroup$
Thank you for such an elaborate proof , not ignoring the signs was an important step indeed.
$endgroup$
– kira0705
3 hours ago
add a comment |
1
$begingroup$
Thank you for such an elaborate proof , not ignoring the signs was an important step indeed.
$endgroup$
– kira0705
3 hours ago
1
1
$begingroup$
Thank you for such an elaborate proof , not ignoring the signs was an important step indeed.
$endgroup$
– kira0705
3 hours ago
$begingroup$
Thank you for such an elaborate proof , not ignoring the signs was an important step indeed.
$endgroup$
– kira0705
3 hours ago
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Hint :
$$frac{1}{2n-1}-frac{1}{2n}=frac{1}{(2n-1)2n}leq frac{1}{(n-1)n}= frac{1}{n-1}-frac{1}{n} $$
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Hint :
$$frac{1}{2n-1}-frac{1}{2n}=frac{1}{(2n-1)2n}leq frac{1}{(n-1)n}= frac{1}{n-1}-frac{1}{n} $$
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Hint :
$$frac{1}{2n-1}-frac{1}{2n}=frac{1}{(2n-1)2n}leq frac{1}{(n-1)n}= frac{1}{n-1}-frac{1}{n} $$
$endgroup$
Hint :
$$frac{1}{2n-1}-frac{1}{2n}=frac{1}{(2n-1)2n}leq frac{1}{(n-1)n}= frac{1}{n-1}-frac{1}{n} $$
answered 3 hours ago
Clément GuérinClément Guérin
10k1736
10k1736
add a comment |
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Fix $epsilon > 0$, then for $n > frac{2}{sqrt{epsilon}}$ (So since both sides of the inequality are positive, $n^2 > frac{4}{epsilon} implies frac{epsilon}{2} > frac{2}{n^2}$), observe that $$|f_n - f_{n+1}| = |frac{1}{n} + frac{1}{n+1}| = |frac{n+2}{n(n+1)}| = frac{n+2}{n(n+1)} < frac{n+2}{n^2} =frac{1}{n} +frac{2}{n^2} < frac{1}{frac{2}{sqrt{epsilon}}} + frac{epsilon}{2} = frac{sqrt{epsilon}}{2} + frac{epsilon}{2} < frac{epsilon}{2} + frac{epsilon}{2} = epsilon $$
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Fix $epsilon > 0$, then for $n > frac{2}{sqrt{epsilon}}$ (So since both sides of the inequality are positive, $n^2 > frac{4}{epsilon} implies frac{epsilon}{2} > frac{2}{n^2}$), observe that $$|f_n - f_{n+1}| = |frac{1}{n} + frac{1}{n+1}| = |frac{n+2}{n(n+1)}| = frac{n+2}{n(n+1)} < frac{n+2}{n^2} =frac{1}{n} +frac{2}{n^2} < frac{1}{frac{2}{sqrt{epsilon}}} + frac{epsilon}{2} = frac{sqrt{epsilon}}{2} + frac{epsilon}{2} < frac{epsilon}{2} + frac{epsilon}{2} = epsilon $$
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Fix $epsilon > 0$, then for $n > frac{2}{sqrt{epsilon}}$ (So since both sides of the inequality are positive, $n^2 > frac{4}{epsilon} implies frac{epsilon}{2} > frac{2}{n^2}$), observe that $$|f_n - f_{n+1}| = |frac{1}{n} + frac{1}{n+1}| = |frac{n+2}{n(n+1)}| = frac{n+2}{n(n+1)} < frac{n+2}{n^2} =frac{1}{n} +frac{2}{n^2} < frac{1}{frac{2}{sqrt{epsilon}}} + frac{epsilon}{2} = frac{sqrt{epsilon}}{2} + frac{epsilon}{2} < frac{epsilon}{2} + frac{epsilon}{2} = epsilon $$
$endgroup$
Fix $epsilon > 0$, then for $n > frac{2}{sqrt{epsilon}}$ (So since both sides of the inequality are positive, $n^2 > frac{4}{epsilon} implies frac{epsilon}{2} > frac{2}{n^2}$), observe that $$|f_n - f_{n+1}| = |frac{1}{n} + frac{1}{n+1}| = |frac{n+2}{n(n+1)}| = frac{n+2}{n(n+1)} < frac{n+2}{n^2} =frac{1}{n} +frac{2}{n^2} < frac{1}{frac{2}{sqrt{epsilon}}} + frac{epsilon}{2} = frac{sqrt{epsilon}}{2} + frac{epsilon}{2} < frac{epsilon}{2} + frac{epsilon}{2} = epsilon $$
edited 3 hours ago
answered 3 hours ago
user516079user516079
318210
318210
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1
$begingroup$
Well, the limit of the sequence because of Leibniz' criterion.
$endgroup$
– egreg
4 hours ago
1
$begingroup$
Hint: a convergent sequence is Cauchy.
$endgroup$
– Bernard
4 hours ago